新高考一卷2022英语试题及答案一览

新高考一卷语文、数学、外语三门考试由教育部考试中心统一命题。下面是小编为大家整理的新高考一卷2022英语试题及答案一览，仅供参考，喜欢可以收藏与分享哟!

新高考一卷2022英语试题及答案

2022年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试

英语

本试卷共 10页，满分 120分。考试用时 120分钟。

注意事项：1.答卷前，考生务必用黑色字迹钢笔或签字笔将自己的姓名、

考生号、考场号和座位号填写在答题卡上。用 2B铅笔将试卷

类型(A)填涂在答题卡相应位置上。将条形码横贴在答题卡

右上角“条形码粘贴处”。因笔试不考听力，选择题从第二部

分的“阅读”开始，试题序号从“21”开始。

2.作答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用 2B铅笔把答题卡上对

应题目选项的答案信息点涂黑;如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，

再选涂其他答案，答案不能答在试卷上。

3.非选择题必须用黑色字迹钢笔或签字笔作答，答案必须写在

答题卡各题目指定区域内相应位置上;如需改动，先划掉原

来的答案，然后再写上新的答案;不准使用铅笔和涂改液。

不按以上要求作答的答案无效。

4.考生必须保持答题卡的整洁。考试结束后，将试卷和答题卡一

并交回。

第二部分阅读(共两节，满分 50分)

第一节(共 15小题;每小题 2.5分，满分 37.5分)

阅读下列短文，从每题所给的 A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。

A

Grading Policies for Introduction to Literature

Grading Scale

90-100, A; 80-89, B; 70-79, C; 60-69, D; Below 60, E.

Essays (60%)

Your four major essays will combine to form the main part of the grade

for this course: Essay 1 = 10%; Essay 2 = 15%; Essay 3 = 15%; Essay 4 =

20%.

Group Assignments (30%)

Students will work in groups to complete four assignments (作业) during

the course. All the assignments will be submitted by the assigned date

through Blackboard, our online learning and course management system.

Daily Work/In-Class Writings and Tests/Group Work/Homework (10%)

Class activities will vary from day to day, but students must be ready to

complete short in-class writings or tests drawn directly from assigned

readings or notes from the previous class’ lecture/discussion, so it is

important to take careful notes during class. Additionally, from time to time

I will assign group work to be completed in class or short assignments to be

completed at home, both of which will be graded.

Late Work

An essay not submitted in class on the due date will lose a letter grade for

each class period it is late. If it is not turned in by the 4th day after the due

date, it will earn a zero. Daily assignments not completed during class will

get a zero. Short writings missed as a result of an excused absence will be

accepted.

21. Where is this text probably taken from?

A. A textbook.

B. An exam paper.

D. An academic article.

C. A course plan.

22. How many parts is a student’s final grade made up of?

A. Two. B. Three. C. Four. D. Five.

23. What will happen if you submit an essay one week after the due date?

A. You will receive a zero.

C. You will be given a test.

B. You will lose a letter grade.

D. You will have to rewrite it.

B

Like most of us, I try to be mindful of food that goes to waste. The

arugula (芝麻菜 ) was to make a nice green salad, rounding out a roast

chicken dinner. But I ended up working late. Then friends called with a

dinner invitation. I stuck the chicken in the freezer. But as days passed, the

arugula went bad. Even worse, I had unthinkingly bought way too much; I

could have made six salads with what I threw out.

In a world where nearly 800 million people a year go hungry, “food waste

goes against the moral grain,” as Elizabeth Royte writes in this month’s

cover story. It’s jaw-dropping how much perfectly good food is thrown away

— from “ugly” (but quite eatable) vegetables rejected by grocers to large

amounts of uneaten dishes thrown into restaurant garbage cans.

Producing food that no one eats wastes the water, fuel, and other

resources used to grow it. That makes food waste an environmental problem.

In fact, Royte writes, “if food waste were a country, it would be the third

largest producer of greenhouse gases in the world.”

If that’s hard to understand, let’s keep it as simple as the arugula at the

back of my refrigerator. Mike Curtin sees my arugula story all the time —

but for him, it’s more like 12 boxes of donated strawberries nearing their

last days. Curtin is CEO of DC Central Kitchen in Washington, D.C., which

recovers food and turns it into healthy meals. Last year it recovered more

than 807,500 pounds of food by taking donations and collecting blemished

(有瑕疵的) produce that otherwise would have rotted in fields. And the

strawberries? Volunteers will wash, cut, and freeze or dry them for use in

meals down the road.

Such methods seem obvious, yet so often we just don’t think. “Everyone

can play a part in reducing waste, whether by not purchasing more food

than necessary in your weekly shopping or by asking restaurants to not

include the side dish you won’t eat.” Curtin says.

24. What does the author want to show by telling the arugula story?

A. We pay little attention to food waste.

B. We waste food unintentionally at times.

C. We waste more vegetables than meat.

D. We have good reasons for wasting food.

25. What is a consequence of food waste according to the text?

A. Moral decline.

B. Environmental harm.

C. Energy shortage.

D. Worldwide starvation.

26. What does Curtin’s company do?

A. It produces kitchen equipment.

B. It turns rotten arugula into clean fuel.

C. It helps local farmers grow fruits.

D. It makes meals out of unwanted food.

27. What does Curtin suggest people do?

A. Buy only what is needed.

B. Reduce food consumption.

C. Go shopping once a week.

D. Eat in restaurants less often.

C

The elderly residents (居民) in care homes in London are being given

hens to look after to stop them feeling lonely.

The project was dreamed up by a local charity (慈善组织) to reduce

loneliness and improve elderly people’s wellbeing. It is also being used to

help patients suffering dementia, a serious illness of the mind. Staff in care

homes have reported a reduction in the use of medicine where hens are in

use.

Among those taking part in the project is 80-year-old Ruth Xavier. She

said: “I used to keep hens when I was younger and had to prepare their

breakfast each morning before I went to school.

“I like the project a lot. I am down there in my wheelchair in the morning

letting the hens out and down there again at night to see they’ve gone to bed.

“It’s good to have a different focus. People have been bringing their

children in to see the hens and residents come and sit outside to watch them.

I’m enjoying the creative activities, and it feels great to have done something

useful.”

There are now 700 elderly people looking after hens in 20 care homes in

the North East, and the charity has been given financial support to roll it out

countrywide.

Wendy Wilson, extra care manager at 60 Penfold Street, one of the first

to embark on the project, said: “Residents really welcome the idea of the

project and the creative sessions. We are looking forward to the benefits and

fun the project can bring to people here.”

Lynn Lewis, director of Notting Hill Pathways, said: “We are happy to be

taking part in the project. It will really help connect our residents through a

shared interest and creative activities.”

28. What is the purpose of the project?

A. To ensure harmony in care homes.

B. To provide part-time jobs for the aged.

C. To raise money for medical research.

D. To promote the elderly people’s welfare.

29. How has the project affected Ruth Xavier?

A. She has learned new life skills.

B. She has gained a sense of achievement.

C. She has recovered her memory.

D. She has developed a strong personality.

30. What do the underlined words “embark on” mean in paragraph 7?

A. Improve.

B. Oppose.

C. Begin.

D. Evaluate.

31. What can we learn about the project from the last two paragraphs?

A. It is well received.

B. It needs to be more creative.

D. It takes ages to see the results.

C. It is highly profitable.

D

Human speech contains more than 2,000 different sounds, from the

common “m” and “a” to the rare clicks of some southern African languages.

But why are certain sounds more common than others? A ground-breaking,

five-year study shows that diet-related changes in human bite led to new

speech sounds that are now found in half the world’s languages.

More than 30 years ago, the scholar Charles Hockett noted that speech

sounds called labiodentals, such as “f” and “v”, were more common in the

languages of societies that ate softer foods. Now a team of researchers led by

Damián Blasi at the University of Zurich, Switzerland, has found how and

why this trend arose.

They discovered that the upper and lower front teeth of ancient human

adults were aligned (对齐), making it hard to produce labiodentals, which

are formed by touching the lower lip to the upper teeth. Later, our jaws

changed to an overbite structure (结构), making it easier to produce such

sounds.

The team showed that this change in bite was connected with the

development of agriculture in the Neolithic period. Food became easier to

chew at this point. The jawbone didn’t have to do as much work and so

didn’t grow to be so large.

Analyses of a language database also confirmed that there was a global

change in the sound of world languages after the Neolithic age, with the use

of “f” and “v” increasing remarkably during the last few thousand years.

These sounds are still not found in the languages of many hunter-gatherer

people today.

This research overturns the popular view that all human speech sounds

were present when human beings evolved around 300,000 years ago. “The

set of speech sounds we use has not necessarily remained stable since the

appearance of human beings, but rather the huge variety of speech sounds

that we find today is the product of a complex interplay of things like

biological change and cultural evolution,” said Steven Moran, a member of

the research team.

32. Which aspect of the human speech sound does Damián Blasi’s research

focus on?

A. Its variety.

B. Its distribution.

D. Its development.

C. Its quantity.

33. Why was it difficult for ancient human adults to produce labiodentals?

A. They had fewer upper teeth than lower teeth.

B. They could not open and close their lips easily.

C. Their jaws were not conveniently structured.

D. Their lower front teeth were not large enough.

34. What is paragraph 5 mainly about?

A. Supporting evidence for the research results.

B. Potential application of the research findings.

C. A further explanation of the research methods.

D. A reasonable doubt about the research process.

35. What does Steven Moran say about the set of human speech sounds?

A. It is key to effective communication.

B. It contributes much to cultural diversity.

C. It is a complex and dynamic system.

D. It drives the evolution of human beings.

第二节(共 5小题;每小题 2.5分，满分 12.5分)

阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选

项中有两项为多余选项。

Fitness Magazine recently ran an article titled “Five Reasons to Thank

Your Workout Partner.” One reason was: “You’ll actually show up if you

know someone is waiting for you at the gym,” while another read: “ 36 ”

With a workout partner, you will increase your training effort as there is a

subtle (微妙) competition.

So, how do you find a workout partner?

First of all, decide what you want from that person.

37

Or do you

just want to be physically fit, able to move with strength and flexibility?

Think about the exercises you would like to do with your workout partner.

You might think about posting what you are looking for on social media,

but it probably won’t result in a useful response. If you plan on

38

working out in a gym, that person must belong to the same gym.

My partner posted her request on the notice board of a local park. Her

notice included what kind of training she wanted to do, how many days a

week and how many hours she wanted to spend on each session, and her age.

It also listed her favorite sports and activities, and provided her phone

number.

39

You and your partner will probably have different skills.

40

Over

time, both of you will benefit — your partner will be able to lift more

weights and you will become more physically fit. The core (核心) of your

relationship is that you will always be there to help each other.

A. Your first meeting may be a little awkward.

B. A workout partner usually needs to live close by.

C. You’ll work harder if you train with someone else.

D. Do you want to be a better athlete in your favorite sport?

E. How can you write a good “seeking training partner” notice?

F. Just accept your differences and learn to work with each other.

G. Any notice for a training partner should include such information.

第三部分语言运用(共两节，满分 30分)

第一节(共 15小题;每小题 1分，满分 15分)

阅读下面短文，从每题所给的 A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入

空白处的最佳选项。

My husband, our children and I have had wonderful camping

experiences over the past ten years.

Some of our

41

are funny, especially from the early years when

along Chalk Creek. I was

our children were little. Once, we

42

43

that our 15-month-old boy would fall into the creek (小溪). I tied a rope

around his waist to keep him near to our spot. That lasted about ten minutes.

He was

44 , and his crying let the whole campground know it. So

45

tying him up, I just kept a close eye on him. It

in the creek. My three-year-old, however, did.

46

— he didn’t end up

Another time, we rented a boat in Vallecito Lake. The sky was clear

when we 47 , but storms move in fast in the mountains, and this one

our peaceful morning trip. The picked up and

thunder rolled. My husband stopped fishing to the motor. Nothing.

He tried again. No 51 . We were stuck in the middle of the lake with a

dead motor. As we all sat there 52 , a fisherman pulled up, threw us a

quickly

48

49

50

rope and towed (拖) us back. We were 53 . Now, every year when my

husband pulls our camper out of the garage, we are filled with a sense of

54 , wondering what camping fun and

55

we will experience next.

41. A. ideas

B. jokes

C. memories

C. walked

D. discoveries

D. cycled

42. A. camped

43. A. annoyed

44. A. unhurt

45. A. due to

46. A. worked

B. drove

B. surprised

B. unfortunate

B. instead of

B. happened

C. disappointed

C. uncomfortable

C. apart from

C. mattered

D. worried

D. unafraid

D. as for

D. changed

D. headed off

D. recorded

D. speed

47. A. signed up B. calmed down C. checked out

48. A. arranged B. interrupted

C. completed

C. temperature

C. start

49. A. wind

50. A. find

51. A. luck

B. noise

B. hide

D. fix

B. answer

C. wonder

C. doubtfully

C. safe

D. signal

52. A. patiently B. tirelessly

D. helplessly

D. right

53. A. sorry

54. A. relief

55. A. failure

B. brave

B. duty

C. pride

D. excitement

D. conflict

B. adventure

C. performance

第二节(共 10小题;每小题 1.5分，满分 15分)

阅读下面短文，在空白处填入 1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。

The Chinese government recently finalized a plan to set up a Giant

Panda National Park (GPNP).

size of Yellowstone National Park, the GPNP will be one of the first

national parks in the country. The plan will extend protection to a

significant number of areas that (be) previously unprotected,

bringing many of the existing protected areas for giant pandas under one

56

(cover) an area about three times

57

58

authority

59

(increase) effectiveness and reduce inconsistencies in

management

After a three-year pilot period, the GPNP will be officially set up next

year. The GPNP (design) to refl